asalama-alaykum-could you explain the meaning behind this hadith : We were ordered to bring our menstruating women and veiled women in the religious gatherings and invocation of Muslims on the two 'Id festivals. These menstruating women were to keep away from their Musalla. A woman asked, "O Allah's Apostle ' What about one who does not have a veil?" He said, "Let her share the veil of her companion."was it before the obligation of the veil in surah ahzab for some muslim women to not have veils? and why was the command specified for Eid?jazakummallahu khayra

All perfect praise be to Allaah, The Lord of the Worlds. I testify that there is none worthy of worship except Allaah, and that Muhammad, sallallaahu ‘alayhi wa sallam, is His slave and Messenger.

The Hadeeth that is mentioned in the question was narrated by Al-Bukhari and Muslim. The Hadeeth is not directed at the women who do not wear the Hijab nor does it concern the time before the Hijab was made obligatory. Rather, this Hadeeth urges women to attend the ‘Eed prayer so that they witness its goodness and attend the prayer of the Muslims. But since some women were unable to go out because they did not have a Jilbaab (long outer garment) to go out with, perhaps due to being poor, then one female Companion asked the Prophet, sallallaahu ‘alayhi wa sallam, said “What about if one of us does not have a Jilbaab?” The meaning is: What shall she do in this case? Then the Prophet, sallallaahu ‘alayhi wa sallam, replied: “Let her sister cover her with her Jilbaab.” The meaning is: Let her sister lend her a Jilbaab which she does not need.

Allaah Knows best.