Assalamu alaikum.Thank you for Question Number: 2154096.I am sorry but I have still not understood.The Verse 5:32 you gave is like this"Because of that We ordained for the Children of Israel that if anyone killed a person not in retaliation of murder".Does not this Verse give permission that if somebody is murdered, retaliation is allowed?Only in retaliation to murder that person maybe killed?Thank you.

All perfect praise be to Allaah, The Lord of the Worlds. I testify that there is none worthy of worship except Allaah, and that Muhammad is His slave and Messenger.

This verse refers to the lawfulness of retribution, such as that relevant to murder. It doesn't mention the person who has the right to implement this retribution. Some scholars have reported the consensus of the Muslim jurists, may Allaah have upon them, that the one who should execute the act of retribution is the Imaam (Muslim leader) or his deputy, for legal reasons which we have already stated to you in former Fataawa. We would like to warn that it is not permissible to explain the Quran depending on one's opinion as was clearly stated by Ibn Katheer and other scholars .

Allaah Knows best.