I read your Fatwa on the ruling of Zakaah on gold that is intended for adornment or savings. I want to know the ruling of jewelry owned by my wife which she uses for adornment noting that it exceeds the Nisaab. However, I once heard her say that if Allaah The Almighty Would Facilitate for her to gain some money, even a small amount, she would sell her jewelry to complete the expenses of Hajj. Does saying this change the intention of owning the gold for adornment to be that of saving?

All perfect praise be to Allaah, The Lord of the worlds. I testify that there is none worthy of worship except Allaah, and that Muhammad, sallallaahu ‘alayhi wa sallam, is His slave and messenger.

According to the majority of scholars, no Zakah is due on the jewelry of a woman that she uses for adornment purposes as mentioned in the Fatwa you read. What you mentioned regarding your wife's intention to sell her jewelry to complete the expenses of Hajj does not change it from being jewelry used for adornment upon which no Zakah is due. This is so because she does not intend to sell it for trade purposes. Moreover, she made the selling conditional on having money that helps her perform Hajj, which is a thing that has not yet happened as appears from your words.